Question
Encountered this morning in today’s reading, Acts 7:42:
μὴ σφάγια καὶ θυσίας προσηνέγκατέ μοι
ἔτη τεσσεράκοντα ἐν τῇ ἐρήμῳ, οἶκος Ἰσραήλ;
(citing Amos 5:25)
Μή does not seem to negate προσηνέγκατε, which is indicative. What is its function here?
Response
The negative mood rule that you know about the indicative applies to a little less than 90% of negatives but there are many exceptions. The Interrogative negative expecting a negative response is one of those exceptions. You see the initial position of the negative and the separation from the verb.