Parousia in 1 Thessalonians 4:15

Question

I was reading some works that mention the problem of how the New Testament addresses the time of Christ's return. I basically understood their arguments, but I don't quite understand the meaning of the Greek words that appear in the text that I am sending to you. I tried Google Translate, but it doesn't work. Would it be possible to explain your opinion on the arguments presented about the parousia being expected in the first century, or to recommend a book addressing them please? I really appreciate you taking your time to help me, in case you have some time available. Thank you!

Quoted from Meyer's Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the New Testament:

Usually, however, in order to remove the objectionableness of the words, an appeal is made to the fact that by means of an “ enallage personae ” or an ἀνακοίνωσις , something is often said of a collective body which, accurately taken, is only suited to a part. Then the sense would be: we Christians, namely, those of us who are alive at the commencement of the advent, i.e. the later generation of Christians who will survive the advent. But however often ἡμεῖς or ὙΜΕῖς is used in a communicative form, yet in this passage such an interpretation is impossible, because here ἩΜΕῖς ΟἹ ΖῶΝΤΕς Κ . Τ . Λ . , as a peculiar class of Christians , are placed in sharp distinction from κοιμηθέντες , as a second class. Accordingly, in order to obtain the sense assumed, the words would require to have been written: ὅτι ἡμῶν οἱ ζῶντες κ . τ . λ . οὐ μὴ φθάσονται τοὺς κοιμηθέντας , apart altogether from the fact that also in 1 Thessalonians 5:4 the possibility is expressed, that the day of the Lord might break in upon the presently existing Thessalonian church. Not less arbitrary is it, with Joachim Lange, to explain the words: “we who live in our posterity ,” for which an additional clause would be necessary. Or, with Turretin, Pelt, and others, to understand οἱ ζῶντες , οἱ περιλειπόμενοι in a hypothetical sense: we, provided we are then alive, provided we still remain. (So, in essentials, Hofmann: by those who are alive are meant those who had not already died.) For then, instead of ἡμεῖς οἱ ζῶντες , οἱ περιλειπόμενοι , it would necessarily require ἩΜΕῖς ΖῶΝΤΕς , ΠΕΡΙΛΕΙΠΌΜΕΝΟΙ (without an article). The same also is valid against J. P. Lange ( Das apostol. Zeitalter , I., Braunschw. 1853, p. 113): “The words, ‘the living, the surviving,’ are for the purpose of making the contrast a variable one, whilst they condition and limit the ἡμεῖς in the sense: we, so many of us (!), who yet live and have survived; or (?) rather, we in so far as we temporarily represent the living and remaining, in contrast to our dead.” Lastly, the view of Hoelemann ( Die Stellung St. Pauli zu der Frage um die Zeit der Wiederkunft Christi , Leipz. 1858, p. 29) is not less refuted by the article before ζῶντες and ΠΕΡΙΛΕΙΠΌΜΕΝΟΙ : “The discourse, starting from the ἩΜΕῖς and rising more and more beyond this concrete beginning, by forming, with the next two notions οἱ ζῶντες , οἱ περιλειπόμενοι , always wider (!) and softer circles, strives to a generic (!) thought namely, to this, that Paul and the contemporary Thessalonians, while in the changing state of περιλείπεσθαι (being left behind), might be indeed personally taken away beforehand; although the opposite possibility, that they themselves might yet be the surviving generation, is included in the ἡμεῖς οἱ ζῶντες with which the thought begins, and which always echoes through it.” Every unprejudiced person must, even from those dogmatic suppositions, recognise that Paul here includes himself, along with the Thessalonians, among those who will be alive at the advent of Christ. Certainly this can only have been a hope, only a subjective expectation on the part of the apostle;

Response

Hello,

You are reading a simple passage in 1 Thessalonians 4:15, where Paul is giving an evasive answer to the Thessalonians’ question about why some of them have died, when Paul had told them that the Second Coming—the Parousia—was coming soon. So they want to know when it will come. But Paul does not know when. That is why the passage is short, because he does not have anything to say about the timing question that everybody is still obsessed with.

Now you are reading a commentary on the passage by Meyer, who is filling it with Greek words that you don’t understand. So it looks to you that you might be missing some important arguments. But you are not. The first Greek word, ἀνακοίνωσις (anakoinōsis), is totally irrelevant to the passage and nobody needs to understand it. It is a term from rhetoric. Meyer is a scholar, but you don’t need to understand anything he says here to understand the passage.

So, in compensation for not being able to answer the timing question of the Parousia, Paul tells them that the dead will precede the living into their inheritance, because the special concern of the Thessalonians is for the salvation of their deceased loved ones; and this will comfort them. Then he goes on to repeat this and adds details about the Second Coming that the Thessalonians might have heard, but which bear repetition.

Then, for completeness, he returns to the living and reassures them of their reunion with their loved ones, together with the Lord, at the time of the Parousia. In verse 17 the Greek word is the rapture word (ἁρπάζω, harpazō: caught up), but it applies to the saved as they go to the final judgment at the Second Coming, not at an imaginary pretribulational Rapture.

ἔκθαμβοι in Acts 3:11

Question

Dennis,

λαὸς is singular but its adjective ἔκθαμβοι is plural, which makes sense to me as ‘the people’ is a plural idea. Is this common in the GNT? Does your functional grammar database reveal other occurrences?

Acts 3:11 (NA27 with Mounce-Koivisto Morphology)

Κρατοῦντος δὲ αὐτοῦ τὸν Πέτρον καὶ τὸν Ἰωάννην συνέδραμεν πᾶς ὁ λαὸς πρὸς αὐτοὺς ἐπὶ τῇ στοᾷ τῇ καλουμένῃ Σολομῶντος ἔκθαμβοι.

Response

I had not coded that verse in the database. In Mark 3:8 πλῆθος πολύ, ἀκούοντες uses a plural participle for a singular subject and verb. It is somewhat similar in using the natural plural of a collective singular noun. I also find 6 other instances where the plural number is used with singular nouns, but they are not predicate nominatives as here in Acts 3:11. The Grammatical Commentary database keeps track of number agreement exceptions (17 kinds). I have identified over 200 in the quarter of the GNT I have coded. The most common are the conjuncts and tack-on subjects and the regular singular verbs with plural neuter subjects.

Sabbaton and the Frequency of the Lord's Supper and Offerings

Question

What is the difference between,

Ἐν δὲ τῇ μιᾷ τῶν σαββάτων

in Acts 20:7 and

κατὰ μίαν σαββάτου

in 1 Corinthians 16:2?

Response

The general answer to this question about the difference between the 2 Sunday expressions is that although there are many grammatical and vocabulary differences, there is only one semantic difference. The sabbath is originally the day of rest, but since it occurred every seventh day according to the Mosaic calendar, it also refers to the week by extension. The ancients could see 7 movable heavenly bodies that moved relative to the fixed rotation of the starry background. μιᾷ is dative since Ἐν governs the dative. It is feminine singular since it refers to the feminine singular noun ἡμέρᾳ. Greek is more elliptical than English. The same goes for accusative μίαν. Since σαββάτου is a time word referring to a day, the author does not need to add ἡμέρᾳ explicitly because association plays a big role in communication and the adjective can stand for the noun.

μιᾷ is a cardinal number referring to day 1, but is understood as ordinal as in Genesis, the first day of the week or the first day after the sabbath. The use of the plural/singular distinction is usually important in the GNT as in English, but at other times, particularly referring to time, it is flexible as with σαββάτων/σαββάτου where singular σαββάτου refers to any of many weeks and plural σαββάτων refers to a particular day. It is the writer’s option. Unlike σαββάτων/σαββάτου, μιᾷ/μίαν needs to be singular in each of the 2 expressions.

The use of the article in prepositional phrases is also optional. However, the canon of Apollonius is usually observed. If μιᾷ is articular, so is σαββάτων. Otherwise, both are anarthrous. The student can see that the Greek speaker/writer had many options available that were equivalents and did not alter the semantics. Some exegetes make the mistake of assuming that different constructions must always express different meanings. Similarly, the translator into an idiomatic target language has many options while preserving the meaning, hence the many translations, often all correct. In contrast, the prepositions were usually determined by the writer’s purpose and affected the reader’s understanding.

In classical Greek prepositions were less common, and case was more often used to make semantic distinctions. Koine often used case and preposition both redundantly for clarity. Sometimes the Koine authors also left the prepositions off without altering the meaning. Of the 3 oblique cases, genitive refers to the point from, dative refers to the point at, and accusative refers to duration or repetition if used with a preposition.

So Acts 20:7, referring to a particular day when Paul was passing by, naturally expresses this point in time with dative and a dative preposition of time. And 1 Corinthians 16:2, referring to a repeated practice, naturally expresses the idea of each Sunday or every Sunday with κατὰ μίαν because καθ’ ἡμέραν is the Koine idiom for every day. This was such a catchy idiom that it passed through Latin to Spanish and French cada dia, chaqu’un.

The Sabbath was sacred in the Law of Moses and led to many disputes between Jesus and the Pharisees over works and the letter and spirit of the law. The change of the day of worship from the sabbath to Sunday by the Christians of the New Covenant is hotly disputed by the Seventh Day Adventists. They pretend to know history and claim that Constantine changed the worship day in violation of sola scriptura and that the other Protestants are all guilty of hypocrisy.

The Seventh Day Adventists get their history from their imagination. The instructions for Sunday worship is in the Didache 200 years before Constantine which was a manual for the churches while the Apostle John was still alive. The original Church before the Reformation never subscribed to sola scriptura and believes that as the keepers of the New Covenant they had the same power that the Jerusalem council had in Acts 15 to override the Mosaic law from the Old Covenant. The Orthodox teach that the change occurred on Thomas Sunday before the Ascension when Thomas confessed Jesus as Lord and God.

The expression the Lord’s Day μιᾷ σαββάτων for Sunday occurs in Matthew 28:1, Mark 16:2, Luke 24:1, John 20:1, all between the resurrection and the ascension, Acts 20:7 and 1 Corinthians 16:2, all as objects of prepositions. The other Protestants who espouse sola scripture sometimes claim that these mentions of the first day actually authorize the worship day change biblically somehow. Sunday was not part of Christ’s pre-crucification doctrine. The equivalent expression, the Lord’s Day ἐν τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ was used once in Revelation 1:10. To this day it is the expression for Sunday in Greek and by extension in many European languages.

Calendars identified dates, not days; there were many ancient calendars. Most modern scholars appear to believe that the 7 day week with the 7 named days did not much predate Christ outside Judea and Babylon, in spite of the fact that the days are named after the 5 planets and sun and moon, which were known in ancient times. The word week often occurs throughout the OT, but not the day names, which are now adopted throughout the world.

Why is ἐλέγετε imperfect in Luke 17:6?

Question

Hi Dennis,

I’m wondering why ἐλέγετε is imperfect here? Is Imperfect + av a formula?

Luke 17:6 (NA27 with Mounce-Koivisto Morphology)

εἶπεν δὲ ὁ κύριος· εἰ ἔχετε πίστιν ὡς κόκκον σινάπεως, ἐλέγετε ἂν τῇ συκαμίνῳ [ταύτῃ]· ἐκριζώθητι καὶ φυτεύθητι ἐν τῇ θαλάσσῃ· καὶ ὑπήκουσεν ἂν ὑμῖν.

Response

You spotted an unusual tense pair in a contrary to fact construction. Good spotting. It might be a unique construction in the GNT (I don’t find any others in the 1/3 of the Greek New Testament (GNT) I have coded).

ἂν as a contrary to fact particle in the main clause always goes with past tense.

Normally the conditional and main verb are both past indicative tenses (If you had had, then you would have had). However, the conditional here in this instance is an unusual present (If you have, although the story makes it plain that they don’t have faith. So it is actually contrary to fact). So with this unusual present contrary to fact conditional, I don’t think the speaker had any choice to put the main clause in imperfect, the closest past tense to present. It is probably very good Greek and belies the popular notion that the GNT is rough.

Romans 3:30 Change of Prepositions

QUESTION

Is the change from ἐκ to διὰ theologically significant or just stylistic? I’m assuming the latter

Romans 3:30

εἴπερ εἷς ὁ θεὸς ὃς δικαιώσει περιτομὴν ἐκ πίστεως καὶ ἀκροβυστίαν διὰ τῆς πίστεως.

Response

Agreed. Parallel. However, another way to look at it is with this variation Paul gets to assert both causalities both ways, that God makes the uncircumcised righteous through their faithfulness and declares them righteous because of their faith and the same for the circumcision.

"Troubled" in Greek John 12:27

QUestion

In John 12:27, "troubled" is tetaraktai in Greek. I'm trying to figure out the beginning te- in the Greek word. Can you help me?

Response

John 12:27

Νῦν ἡ ψυχή μου τετάρακται, καὶ τί εἴπω; πάτερ, σῶσόν με ἐκ τῆς ὥρας ταύτης; ἀλλὰ διὰ τοῦτο ἦλθον εἰς τὴν ὥραν ταύτην.

Normally when you see the epsilon reduplication (like τετ or βεβ), the first guess is perfect. The Greek New Testament (GNT) has hundreds of these; so it is a good pattern to learn. This is confirmed by the third person perfect passive ending ται. Τετάρακται is perfect (5th principal part) from ταρἀσσω to disturb, meaning it has been disturbed, where the double σσ in the first principal part represents a guttural root like χ. (The noun is τάραχος)..

Why does it mean “is troubled” as though it were present ταράσσεται? Perfect refers to an event (a disturbance) that first occurred in the past but whose effect continues in the present; so although it refers to something started in the past, its main time is present. So translators often simplify it that way. Τετάρακται is more precise than ταράσσεται because it communicates to the GNT reader that the trouble has been going on for some time. Exact details like that are hard to capture in translation.

Resources for Pronunciation of Koine Greek

Question

Where can I find resources for Modern Greek pronunciation of Koine Greek?

Response

Stephen Pribble has put together a helpful resource at:

https://all-of-grace.org/pub/pribble/moderngreek/index.html

For the same audio on YouTube with scrolling text, see the link below. Choose a book, listen and follow onscreen. It’s highly recommended.

https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLk3PwQOcbBq2U2r7xsulg8e2Lvs0_QFU5

Use of μή in Acts 7:42

Question

Encountered this morning in today’s reading, Acts 7:42:

μὴ σφάγια καὶ θυσίας προσηνέγκατέ μοι

ἔτη τεσσεράκοντα ἐν τῇ ἐρήμῳ, οἶκος Ἰσραήλ;

(citing Amos 5:25)

Μή does not seem to negate προσηνέγκατε, which is indicative. What is its function here?

Response

The negative mood rule that you know about the indicative applies to a little less than 90% of negatives but there are many exceptions. The Interrogative negative expecting a negative response is one of those exceptions. You see the initial position of the negative and the separation from the verb.

Koine Greek Questions as Independent Clauses

Question

Hi Dennis,

Is a question ever an independent clause in Koine Greek?

Response

Clauses are headed by finite verbs. Relative clauses and clauses with subordinators like ὁτι are not usually interrogative. Interrogative clauses have a question mark (:) at the end and may be dependent or independent. They often start with interrogative words such as “why” or “where.” There are also interrogative relative clauses such as “he asked what he could do”, but these are dependent and lack the question mark. About 6% of GNT main clauses are interrogative. About a third of those are dependent clauses governed by a discourse control verb in the independent clause, and about two thirds are independent.

All of the independent interrogative clauses are in letters (epistles) or in extended discourse that have a discourse control word (usually a verb) in a previous independent clause. For example, in the Sermon on the Mount Matthew 5:13, Jesus says

“If the salt loses its flavor, with what will it be salted?”

The discourse control verb is λέγων back in Matthew 5:2. In addition to interrogative clauses, elliptical interrogative fragments occur, and these are usually independent. For example in Matthew 11:7, Jesus asks

“What did you go out into the wilderness to see? A reed shaken by the wind?"

What is the antecedent for τούτου in Genesis 2:24 LXX (Septuagint)?

QUESTION

Genesis 2:24

" 24 ἕνεκεν τούτου καταλείψει ἄνθρωπος τὸν πατέρα αὐτοῦ καὶ τὴν μητέρα αὐτοῦ καὶ προσκολληθήσεται πρὸς τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ, καὶ ἔσονται οἱ δύο εἰς σάρκα μίαν."

τούτου Is neuter here, apparently, but what is it referring to? Is it part of an idiom “therefore” ἕνεκεν τούτου and so an antecedent isn’t needed? Bone is neuter in verse 23, but that doesn’t seem sufficient to the meaning.

RESPONSE

As you know, all pronouns and verbs (and a few other kinds of words) in Greek have antecedents. The antecedent of τούτου is the previous sentence, as is common in the Greek New Testament (GNT). Probably you didn’t think of a whole sentence, or discourse even, as a candidate, but the Greek speakers certainly did.